WEBVTT

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Welcome back to the Deep Dive. So you've decided

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you want to start investing. You read all the

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headlines, right? Compounding interest, long

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term growth, the power of index funds. It sounds

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pretty simple. Buy low, hold for a few decades,

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retire comfortably. But then you get the prospectus

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and suddenly you're just drowning in jargon.

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CDSE, 12B1, expense ratios, breakpoints. It's

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like a hundred pages of acronyms and percentages

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that feels... It feels like it's designed to

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confuse you. It absolutely does. And that confusion,

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you know, that's exactly where the industry profits.

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Investing is, at its core, a simple concept.

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But mutual fund fees are anything but. Today,

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we're diving deep into those hidden costs, the

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charges that don't look like much on paper or

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maybe just a fraction of a percent, but they

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silently, relentlessly erode your long -term

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returns year after year. And we have dissected

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a phenomenal source document for this. It's like

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a genuine taxonomy of every single charge, fee,

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and expense a mutual fund investor could possibly

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encounter. It covers everything from that upfront

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sales commission to the operational friction

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deep inside the fund's trading desk. here for

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you is to not just read these definitions out

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loud. We want to truly map this financial landscape.

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We're building a clear, structured guide to all

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of these fees. By the time we finish this deep

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dive, you will understand the underlying purpose

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of every single charge. And that really is the

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only way to effectively compare funds and pick

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the best path for your capital. Okay, so let's

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frame the core problem right away. I mean, running

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a successful mutual fund. It's a complex business.

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They need top -tier investment talent, admin

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staff, legal, trading infrastructure, marketing.

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These are significant costs and, well, they have

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to be paid. Right. And they get passed directly

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to us, the investors, in two main buckets. First,

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you have the direct shareholder fees. These are

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charged when you buy or sell shares. And second,

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you have the indirect operating expenses. These

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are the percentage fees that are paid constantly

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right out of the fund's total assets. And that

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indirect stream of payments, that's the real

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focus, isn't it? Because that's the stealth killer

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of returns. It absolutely is. You know, we might

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look at a 1 .5 % annual fee and think, oh, it's

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only 1 .5%. But when you hold an investment for

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30 or 40 years, The compounding effect of that

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fee, just eating away at your potential gains

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year after year, it can reduce your final earnings

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by tens or even hundreds of thousands of dollars.

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This is why we always emphasize moving beyond

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the surface level claims and really calculating

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the total expense ratio or a TER. And then you

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have to compare it ruthlessly against the industry

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benchmarks. And when you look at those benchmarks,

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the initial data we pulled from 2020 on U .S.

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funds is incredibly stark. It just immediately

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highlights the economic credit. What are you

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actually getting for paying those extra percentage

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points? We have the weighted average total expense

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ratios for all U .S. funds as of December 31st,

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2020. And the difference between active and passive

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management. It's a profound knowledge nugget

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right out of the gate. Across all funds, the

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weighted average TER for all active funds was

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a staggering 1 .04%. Over 1%. Just for a human

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to try to beat the market? Exactly. Now, compare

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that to all passive or index funds. Their weighted

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average TER was a remarkably low 0 .45%. That's

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a cost difference of nearly 60 basis points right

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away. Wait, I have to challenge that just for

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a second. An active management advocate would

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say, well, that 1 .04 % fee is totally justified

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if my manager delivers an extra 2 % return, you

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know, netting me 10 % instead of 8%. Do investors

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actually tolerate this huge gap? We do. They

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tolerate it based on hope. And on the historical

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reality that while most active managers do underperform,

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the possibility that you'll pick that one outlier

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who consistently wins, well, that's enough to

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keep the money flowing. But the trend is clear.

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The market is moving toward passive, largely

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because of data like this. And look at specific

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asset classes where the margin is even thinner.

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Taxable bond funds. Active averaged 0 .85 % versus

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passive at a breathtakingly low 0 .23%. In a

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low return world like fixed income, paying that

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extra fee means you're consuming a much, much

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larger chunk of your gross return. That data

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right there confirms that chasing low costs isn't

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just about saving a few bucks. It's about maximizing

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the efficiency of your capital. Okay, let's unpack

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the specifics then. We'll start with the upfront,

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direct charges. The fees that are levied directly

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against you when you move money in or out. These

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are the transactional fees paid to the fund.

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Right. Think of these as the administrative costs,

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and they're distinct from sales commissions.

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They're like the toll booths you hit on the investment

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highway. First up, we have the purchase fee,

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charged when you buy shares. Why is the distinction

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between this and a front -end sales load so important?

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That distinction is critical, and it really goes

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to the regulatory framework. A front -end load,

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which we'll get to, is a commission paid to the

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broker who sold you the fund. A purchase fee

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is paid directly to the fund itself. Its purpose

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is purely administrative. It's there to defray

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the fund's internal costs associated with your

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purchase. It's not for sales advice. So if I

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put $10 ,000 into a fund, a 1 % purchase fee

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means the fund keeps $100 to cover paperwork,

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whereas a 1 % front -end load means the broker

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keeps $100 for selling it to me. Precisely. The

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purchase fee is about the mechanical cost of

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integrating your money. And conceptually, it

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can also act as a sort of minor protection for

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existing shareholders. It ensures that new money

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coming in pays its own way and doesn't dilute

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the interests of people already holding shares.

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Then we have the mirror image. The redemption

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fee. This is charged when you sell or redeem

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shares. And this is a fee paid directly to the

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fund when you pull your money out. Again, this

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is not the broker's commission. That would be

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a deferred sales load. The redemption fee is

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designed to defray the fund's costs associated

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with liquidating assets to meet your redemption

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request. But the redemption fee often serves

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a second, maybe unstated purpose, doesn't it?

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Absolutely. It's a mechanism to deter short -term

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trading. If an investor is constantly buying

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and selling, you know, trying to time the market,

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that activity can force the fund manager to make

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unnecessary trades. And that raises costs and

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disrupts the strategy for all the long -term

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holders. So by imposing a redemption fee... especially

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one that expires after, say, 60 days, the fund

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discourages that disruptive behavior. That suddenly

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makes the fee seem beneficial rather than punitive

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if you're a long -term holder. It's all about

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aligning interests. Okay, finally, in this category,

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we have the very specific exchange fee. Right.

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This is a fee you pay if you transfer shares

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to another fund within the same family of funds.

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So let's say you hold the Sterling Large Cap

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Growth Fund and you decide you want to move that

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capital to the Sterling International Bond Fund.

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You're staying with the same company, but you're

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making them process a full sale and a full purchase

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internally. Is that really always necessary?

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I mean, they already have my money. Why the extra

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charge? It's a processing fee. The complexity

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of transferring assets, updating shareholder

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records, and potentially liquidating assets in

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the first fund and acquiring them in the second.

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It just warrants a small administrative charge.

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It's their way of recouping the labor involved.

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So purchase, redemption, and exchange fees. That's

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our first bucket. Transactional costs paid directly

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to the fund for the mechanics of moving money.

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Exactly. One -time hits for specific actions.

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So that covers the one -time hit. But what about

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what happens every single day the fund is operating?

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The engine still needs fuel, maintenance, marketing.

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If those direct fees are the toll booths, these

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periodic operating expenses are like the fund's

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ongoing utility. bill. It's paid constantly,

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automatically from the fund's assets. This is

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that persistent, invisible draw on your capital.

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So what exactly are these ongoing costs covering

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that justifies paying them 365 days a year? Well,

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we start with the most essential and usually

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the largest component, the management fee. The

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heavyweight champion. Indeed. This fee is paid

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out of the fund's assets to the fund's investment

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advisor. This is a big one because it covers

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the core function. portfolio management, the

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salaries for it, for the fund manager, the research

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analysts, the strategists, the team doing the

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intense work of picking stocks and bonds. And

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it's not just the investment decisions, is it?

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Correct. The management fee often bundles in

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other general management or administrative fees.

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Our source notes, they're also sometimes called

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maintenance fees. It's sort of a catch -all for

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the intellectual property and the administrative

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oversight that the advisory firm provides. And

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if a fund is huge, say $10 billion in assets

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under management, and it charges a 1 % management

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fee? That's $100 million in fees a year. That

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is a substantial piece of business. It shows

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you the scale, and that management fee is the

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primary reason for the price difference between

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active and passive funds. Passive funds don't

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need a team of expensive analysts trying to beat

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the S &amp;P 500. They just need algorithms to replicate

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it. Okay, moving on. We have the specific account

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fee. This is separately imposed on investors

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for account maintenance. And this is a point

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of concern for new or smaller investors. The

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source material really emphasizes that some funds

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impose this fee specifically on accounts whose

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value is less than a certain dollar amount. That

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seems counterproductive. You're penalizing the

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exact people you want to encourage to start saving.

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It's purely economic for the fund. If they figure

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that the administrative cost of maintaining,

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say, a sub $2 ,000 account is disproportionately

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high relative to the tiny management fee they

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collect on it, they impose this account fee to

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cover their overhead. So if your balance dips

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below their threshold, you get hit with a specific

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annual charge just for holding a small balance.

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Now let's move to one of the most famous and,

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frankly, historically controversial fees, distribution

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and service fees, known everywhere as the 12b

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-1 rule. Named after Section 12 of the Investment

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Company Act of 1940. This fee is basically the

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fund's marketing budget, and it's paid for by

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your investment dollars. These fees are explicitly

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paid by the fund, out -of -fund assets, to cover

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the costs of marketing, selling shares, and providing

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shareholder services. Let's break down those

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two components, distribution versus service.

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So distribution fees are the costs of bringing

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in new money. This is the compensation for brokers

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and financial intermediaries who sell the fund

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shares. It covers advertising, printing, and

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mailing prospectuses to new investors. All the

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sales literature. It's the cost of growth. And

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the shareholder service fees part. That covers

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the ongoing support. The people who answer investor

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questions, handle address changes, and provide

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information. This is the cost of maintaining

00:10:44.620 --> 00:10:47.039
the relationship. And a crucial point from the

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source. These servicing fees can be paid either

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inside or outside of a Rule 12b -1 plan. meaning

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they might be hidden in that other expenses bucket.

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And here it is, the classic aha moment that trips

00:10:58.909 --> 00:11:01.649
up every new investor, the no -load loophole.

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How can a fund that charges a 12B1 fee still

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call itself no -load? It's a regulatory definition

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game. The term load strictly refers to the sales

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commission paid to the broker. Funds can charge

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up to 0 .25 % of fund assets annually in these

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distribution fees and still legally describe

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themselves as no -load. That 25 basis points

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is a persistent annual fee for distribution.

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Yet the fund gets to advertise zero upfront sales

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cost. So on $10 ,000, that's 25 bucks a year.

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It doesn't sound like much. But over 30 years,

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that $25 compounding annually is not trivial.

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And it confirms that no load is a marketing term.

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It's not a statement of zero cost. It's a statement

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of zero sales commission. The fund is still paying

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for marketing, and you're paying for it through

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a continuous small percentage reduction in your

00:11:53.860 --> 00:11:55.899
capital. It's a critical distinction. And that

00:11:55.899 --> 00:11:58.399
moves us to the really shadowy category in operating

00:11:58.399 --> 00:12:00.679
expenses, other operating expenses, specifically

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the transaction costs. This is where it gets

00:12:03.419 --> 00:12:05.980
really interesting, because this cost is invisible

00:12:05.980 --> 00:12:08.919
to the casual investor. Yet it's often a significant

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drag on performance, especially for actively

00:12:11.480 --> 00:12:15.220
managed funds. Transaction costs are the actual

00:12:15.220 --> 00:12:18.039
expenses the fund incurs when it buys and sells

00:12:18.039 --> 00:12:20.659
its underlying assets. So brokerage commissions,

00:12:21.100 --> 00:12:24.799
exchange fees, bid -ask spreads, settlement costs.

00:12:25.139 --> 00:12:28.159
Why do these costs vary so much between different

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funds? They're driven by two key internal decisions.

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First, the fund's turnover ratio. This measures

00:12:35.259 --> 00:12:37.320
how frequently a fund replaces its holdings.

00:12:37.440 --> 00:12:40.360
A 100 % turnover ratio means the manager, on

00:12:40.360 --> 00:12:42.500
average, sold and replaced the entire portfolio

00:12:42.500 --> 00:12:45.480
over the year. High turnover funds generate massive

00:12:45.480 --> 00:12:47.500
trading friction. What's considered a high turnover?

00:12:48.100 --> 00:12:50.299
Generally, anything over 100 % is very high.

00:12:50.500 --> 00:12:52.480
Index funds, by contrast, might have turnover

00:12:52.480 --> 00:12:55.240
ratios well below 10%. The difference is just

00:12:55.240 --> 00:12:57.720
night and day. And the second factor? The type

00:12:57.720 --> 00:13:00.600
of market the fund trades in. If a fund is investing

00:13:00.600 --> 00:13:03.289
in highly liquid major market stocks like the

00:13:03.289 --> 00:13:06.529
S &amp;P 500, transaction costs are low. But if they're

00:13:06.529 --> 00:13:09.990
investing in illiquid, emerging or exotic markets,

00:13:10.009 --> 00:13:12.950
say small cap stocks in Vietnam, the cost of

00:13:12.950 --> 00:13:15.389
entry and exit will be significantly higher.

00:13:15.850 --> 00:13:18.370
Okay, here's the core technical nugget that everyone

00:13:18.370 --> 00:13:20.789
needs to remember. Unlike the management fee

00:13:20.789 --> 00:13:23.590
or the 12B1 fee, which are all rolled up into

00:13:23.590 --> 00:13:26.350
the total expense ratio, these transaction costs

00:13:26.350 --> 00:13:28.889
are usually not reported directly to the investor.

00:13:29.090 --> 00:13:31.769
Correct. This is a regulatory loophole that frustrates

00:13:31.769 --> 00:13:34.850
a lot of industry analysts. The TR captures advisory,

00:13:35.230 --> 00:13:38.029
admin, and distribution costs. But the trading

00:13:38.029 --> 00:13:40.019
friction... the cost of moving assets around.

00:13:40.240 --> 00:13:42.279
It's not required to be itemized and reported.

00:13:42.519 --> 00:13:44.980
Instead, that cost is just absorbed by the fund

00:13:44.980 --> 00:13:47.320
and reflected in a slightly lower net asset value,

00:13:47.480 --> 00:13:50.259
or NAV, every single day. It's an invisible tax

00:13:50.259 --> 00:13:52.159
on performance. How can we estimate it? Give

00:13:52.159 --> 00:13:54.500
us a hypothetical. So if you invest $10 ,000

00:13:54.500 --> 00:13:58.159
in an actively managed fund with a 100 % turnover

00:13:58.159 --> 00:14:01.879
ratio, you might implicitly incur an extra half

00:14:01.879 --> 00:14:04.759
a percent, maybe 1%, in hidden transaction costs

00:14:04.759 --> 00:14:08.110
every year. That half a percent, 50 bucks a year

00:14:08.110 --> 00:14:10.769
on 10 grand, is a cost you never see itemized.

00:14:11.289 --> 00:14:13.929
But it's paid. So if I'm comparing two active

00:14:13.929 --> 00:14:18.289
funds, fund A has a T of 1 % with 10 % turnover.

00:14:18.509 --> 00:14:21.809
Fund B has a tier of 1 % with 150 % turnover.

00:14:22.090 --> 00:14:24.509
I should mentally realize that fund B's true

00:14:24.509 --> 00:14:28.269
cost is probably closer to 1 .5 or 2%. Absolutely.

00:14:28.789 --> 00:14:31.710
High turnover in an active fund is a massive

00:14:31.710 --> 00:14:35.029
red flag that demands a deeper look. Okay. We've

00:14:35.029 --> 00:14:37.690
covered fees paid to the fund and fees paid from

00:14:37.690 --> 00:14:40.309
the fund's assets. Now we get to the third big

00:14:40.309 --> 00:14:42.649
bucket, the loads. This is where the money goes

00:14:42.649 --> 00:14:44.350
to the intermediary. It's the sales commission.

00:14:44.669 --> 00:14:46.190
This is the commission structure that really

00:14:46.190 --> 00:14:48.950
defines the different share classes, A, B, and

00:14:48.950 --> 00:14:51.629
C. A sales load is a percentage charge on the

00:14:51.629 --> 00:14:53.830
purchase or sale of shares. It's the commission

00:14:53.830 --> 00:14:55.789
paid to the broker who puts you into the fund.

00:14:56.009 --> 00:14:57.669
Let's start with the most traditional structure,

00:14:57.990 --> 00:15:01.269
the front -end load, which is the hallmark of

00:15:01.269 --> 00:15:03.789
Class A shares. This is also known as a sales

00:15:03.789 --> 00:15:06.370
charge. It's a fee paid right when you purchase

00:15:06.370 --> 00:15:09.049
the shares. And as we established, it goes straight

00:15:09.049 --> 00:15:12.450
to the brokers. The key impact on your investment

00:15:12.450 --> 00:15:15.909
is immediate and substantial. It's not just a

00:15:15.909 --> 00:15:18.590
charge. It reduces your starting capital. Exactly.

00:15:18.610 --> 00:15:20.870
Let's use that classic example. You bring $10

00:15:20.870 --> 00:15:24.370
,000 to invest in a fund with a 5 % front -end

00:15:24.370 --> 00:15:27.870
load. The brokerage firm immediately takes $500

00:15:27.870 --> 00:15:32.120
as their commission. Only $9 ,500 is actually

00:15:32.120 --> 00:15:35.139
invested in the market. So that $9 ,500 has to

00:15:35.139 --> 00:15:37.940
gain over 5 % just to get you back to your starting

00:15:37.940 --> 00:15:40.379
$10 ,000. You start the race behind the starting

00:15:40.379 --> 00:15:42.480
line. That's the psychological friction. Your

00:15:42.480 --> 00:15:45.000
money is immediately playing catch up just to

00:15:45.000 --> 00:15:48.009
break even on the commission. The one advantage,

00:15:48.129 --> 00:15:50.429
though, is that once you pay that upfront load,

00:15:50.629 --> 00:15:53.570
the annual operating expenses for Class A shares,

00:15:53.750 --> 00:15:56.990
including the 12B1 fees, tend to be the lowest

00:15:56.990 --> 00:15:59.169
of all the share classes. And there are legal

00:15:59.169 --> 00:16:01.850
limits on this initial hit, right? Yes, though

00:16:01.850 --> 00:16:04.570
they are rarely tested these days. Under the

00:16:04.570 --> 00:16:08.029
Investment Company Act of 1940, the max is 9%.

00:16:08.029 --> 00:16:12.570
Under fine IRA rules, it's capped at 8 .5%. High

00:16:12.570 --> 00:16:15.220
numbers, but they set the legal boundary. All

00:16:15.220 --> 00:16:17.340
right, moving on to the back -end load, which

00:16:17.340 --> 00:16:19.440
is typically associated with Class B shares.

00:16:19.899 --> 00:16:22.340
This one is known as a contingent deferred sales

00:16:22.340 --> 00:16:26.500
charge, or CDSC. As the name says, it's a fee

00:16:26.500 --> 00:16:29.200
paid when shares are sold, hence batch -end.

00:16:29.779 --> 00:16:32.059
It still typically goes to the stockbrokers who

00:16:32.059 --> 00:16:34.940
sold the fund. Why would a broker agree to defer

00:16:34.940 --> 00:16:37.399
their commission? Because the fund compensates

00:16:37.399 --> 00:16:39.860
them up front anyway. It advances the commission,

00:16:40.019 --> 00:16:42.620
then collects it over time through higher annual

00:16:42.620 --> 00:16:45.649
12B1 fees from the investor. Backed by the promise

00:16:45.649 --> 00:16:48.009
of that CDSC if the investor leaves early, the

00:16:48.009 --> 00:16:49.809
whole structure is designed for long -term retention.

00:16:50.210 --> 00:16:52.690
So if I buy Class B shares, I pay no upfront

00:16:52.690 --> 00:16:54.830
commission, but I'm implicitly locked into a

00:16:54.830 --> 00:16:56.870
holding period. Think of it like a free cell

00:16:56.870 --> 00:16:58.750
phone deal where you're locked into a seven -year

00:16:58.750 --> 00:17:01.409
service contract with a huge early termination

00:17:01.409 --> 00:17:05.650
fee. The CDSC starts high, often 5 % or 6 % in

00:17:05.650 --> 00:17:08.809
the first year. But here's the key feature. The

00:17:08.809 --> 00:17:11.430
fee incrementally discounts for each year you

00:17:11.430 --> 00:17:14.420
hold the shares. After maybe five, six, or seven

00:17:14.420 --> 00:17:17.579
years, the fee usually decreases to zero. And

00:17:17.579 --> 00:17:19.700
that schedule has to be clearly disclosed in

00:17:19.700 --> 00:17:22.119
the prospectus. So if I sell in year one, I pay

00:17:22.119 --> 00:17:25.259
the full 6%. If I sell in year eight, I pay nothing.

00:17:25.519 --> 00:17:28.759
It's a stick to keep you invested. Exactly. It

00:17:28.759 --> 00:17:31.259
smooths the compensation for the broker and protects

00:17:31.259 --> 00:17:33.839
the fund from having to liquidate assets prematurely.

00:17:33.940 --> 00:17:37.339
Okay. Next, the hybrid. The level load or low

00:17:37.339 --> 00:17:39.599
load. This is sometimes associated with Class

00:17:39.599 --> 00:17:42.240
C shares, but it's a bit different. Like back

00:17:42.240 --> 00:17:45.000
-end loads, no charge is paid when buying. If

00:17:45.000 --> 00:17:47.180
a back -end load is charged when you sell, the

00:17:47.180 --> 00:17:49.279
time frame is significantly shorter than a standard

00:17:49.279 --> 00:17:51.859
CDSC, maybe just one or two years. It's less

00:17:51.859 --> 00:17:53.460
of a seven -year commitment and more of a short

00:17:53.460 --> 00:17:55.680
-term deterrent. And finally, the structure that

00:17:55.680 --> 00:17:57.759
causes the most confusion because of marketing,

00:17:57.960 --> 00:18:01.220
the no -load fund. Associated primarily with

00:18:01.220 --> 00:18:04.640
Class C shares. A no -load fund does not charge

00:18:04.640 --> 00:18:07.240
any type of sales load. No upfront commission,

00:18:07.400 --> 00:18:10.299
maybe a very small short -term back -end charge,

00:18:10.460 --> 00:18:13.140
or none at all. But this is the big aha moment

00:18:13.140 --> 00:18:15.880
we need to really drive home. Not every fee is

00:18:15.880 --> 00:18:18.319
a sales load. So what's the tradeoff for zero

00:18:18.319 --> 00:18:20.500
commission? The tradeoff is simple. High annual

00:18:20.500 --> 00:18:23.400
fees. While a no -load fund can still charge

00:18:23.400 --> 00:18:25.680
those administrative transaction fees, purchase,

00:18:25.819 --> 00:18:28.519
redemption, exchange, the core issue is that

00:18:28.519 --> 00:18:30.859
Class C shares generally have the highest annual

00:18:30.859 --> 00:18:34.299
expense charges of all share classes. The ongoing

00:18:34.299 --> 00:18:37.720
12B1 fee and other administrative expenses are

00:18:37.720 --> 00:18:39.940
structured higher to perpetually compensate the

00:18:39.940 --> 00:18:42.420
brokers who sold them. So Class A hits you hard

00:18:42.420 --> 00:18:45.230
once but runs cheaply forever. Class C lets you

00:18:45.230 --> 00:18:47.289
in for free, but charges you a little bit every

00:18:47.289 --> 00:18:50.089
single day. Precisely. If you are a short -term

00:18:50.089 --> 00:18:52.509
investor, Class C might look attractive. But

00:18:52.509 --> 00:18:54.329
for someone holding the fund for 10 or more years,

00:18:54.509 --> 00:18:56.690
the cumulative cost of that higher annual expense

00:18:56.690 --> 00:18:59.349
ratio in Class C will almost certainly exceed

00:18:59.349 --> 00:19:01.029
the initial load you would have paid on Class

00:19:01.029 --> 00:19:03.730
A shares. The cost doesn't vanish. It just changes

00:19:03.730 --> 00:19:06.329
form. That is a critical piece of synthesis.

00:19:06.789 --> 00:19:09.269
The cost doesn't vanish. It just changes form.

00:19:09.490 --> 00:19:12.630
Changes the psychology, but the economics are

00:19:12.630 --> 00:19:16.309
relentless. Okay, now let's shift gears. We've

00:19:16.309 --> 00:19:19.089
defined the taxonomy. Now we connect this to

00:19:19.089 --> 00:19:21.329
the bigger picture, looking at the regulatory

00:19:21.329 --> 00:19:23.950
and structural details unique to the U .S. market.

00:19:24.509 --> 00:19:27.170
Let's start by drilling down on Class A shares

00:19:27.170 --> 00:19:30.029
and the volume discounts available, breakpoints.

00:19:30.549 --> 00:19:33.170
Breakpoints are essentially volume discounts

00:19:33.170 --> 00:19:36.500
for fund investors. Funds that charge front -end

00:19:36.500 --> 00:19:39.400
sales loads often charge lower loads for larger

00:19:39.400 --> 00:19:42.200
investments. These predefined investment levels

00:19:42.200 --> 00:19:44.299
are called breakpoints. It sounds like buying

00:19:44.299 --> 00:19:46.839
in bulk. Why is this so significant? It drastically

00:19:46.839 --> 00:19:49.240
changes the economics of the investment. For

00:19:49.240 --> 00:19:51.640
instance, a fund might charge a 5 % load on investments

00:19:51.640 --> 00:19:55.299
under $25 ,000, but only 4 % if you invest between

00:19:55.299 --> 00:19:58.460
$25 ,000 and $50 ,000. Recognizing and hitting

00:19:58.460 --> 00:20:00.900
those breakpoints saves you a huge chunk of capital

00:20:00.900 --> 00:20:03.440
right at the start. Is the fund required to offer

00:20:03.440 --> 00:20:07.619
these? No. The SEC doesn't mandate that a fund

00:20:07.619 --> 00:20:11.579
offer breakpoints. But the crucial rule is, if

00:20:11.579 --> 00:20:14.859
they do exist, the fund must fully and clearly

00:20:14.859 --> 00:20:17.869
disclose them. The onus is on the investor to

00:20:17.869 --> 00:20:19.990
know they exist. And there's a major ethical

00:20:19.990 --> 00:20:21.930
responsibility tied to the broker here, right?

00:20:22.190 --> 00:20:25.730
Absolutely. Fenner is very clear on this. Brokerage

00:20:25.730 --> 00:20:27.990
firms must not sell shares in an amount that

00:20:27.990 --> 00:20:30.849
is just below a breakpoint simply to earn a higher

00:20:30.849 --> 00:20:32.670
commission. It's called a breakpoint violation.

00:20:33.049 --> 00:20:35.849
It's a breach of fiduciary duty. So how does

00:20:35.849 --> 00:20:38.230
an investor who might not have $50 ,000 all at

00:20:38.230 --> 00:20:40.349
once make sure they qualify for the lowest possible

00:20:40.349 --> 00:20:43.559
load? This is the actionable takeaway. This is

00:20:43.559 --> 00:20:45.599
where we get into some advanced strategies, which

00:20:45.599 --> 00:20:47.920
should be in every prospectus. There are two

00:20:47.920 --> 00:20:50.220
main ways funds help you aggregate your investments

00:20:50.220 --> 00:20:53.160
to hit breakpoints. Rights of accumulation, or

00:20:53.160 --> 00:20:56.839
ROA, and letters of intent, or LOI. Explain rights

00:20:56.839 --> 00:21:00.000
of accumulation. ROA means that the fund counts

00:21:00.000 --> 00:21:02.299
the total value of all investments you currently

00:21:02.299 --> 00:21:05.059
hold with that fund company, often across multiple

00:21:05.059 --> 00:21:08.259
accounts, including, say, those held by your

00:21:08.259 --> 00:21:10.220
spouse and children in the same fund family.

00:21:10.990 --> 00:21:13.089
They look at your current aggregate holding to

00:21:13.089 --> 00:21:15.829
determine which breakpoint you qualify for on

00:21:15.829 --> 00:21:18.509
your new investment. So if I bought $40 ,000

00:21:18.509 --> 00:21:21.069
worth five years ago and I'm adding $10 ,000

00:21:21.069 --> 00:21:24.210
today, my $10 ,000 purchase is treated as a $50

00:21:24.210 --> 00:21:27.309
,000 purchase for the discount calculation. Exactly.

00:21:27.309 --> 00:21:29.529
You are accumulating the right to a lower fee.

00:21:29.769 --> 00:21:32.869
And what about the letter of intent, the LOI?

00:21:33.089 --> 00:21:36.869
The LOI is a formal non -binding agreement where

00:21:36.869 --> 00:21:38.910
you state your intention to invest a certain

00:21:38.910 --> 00:21:41.589
amount over a specific period. usually 13 months,

00:21:41.849 --> 00:21:44.670
to qualify for Breakpoint today. For example,

00:21:44.710 --> 00:21:47.049
you sign an LOI saying you intend to invest $100

00:21:47.049 --> 00:21:50.390
,000 over the next year. Based on that promise,

00:21:50.589 --> 00:21:52.789
all your purchases start immediately receiving

00:21:52.789 --> 00:21:55.650
the discount for the $100 ,000 level, even if

00:21:55.650 --> 00:21:58.390
you've only put in $20 ,000 so far. That's powerful.

00:21:58.529 --> 00:22:00.970
What if I failed to meet the target? The LOI

00:22:00.970 --> 00:22:03.829
usually has a custodial requirement. Shares are

00:22:03.829 --> 00:22:06.480
often held in escrow. If you fail to meet the

00:22:06.480 --> 00:22:08.680
target, the fund may liquidate some of those

00:22:08.680 --> 00:22:10.640
escrowed shares to recover the difference between

00:22:10.640 --> 00:22:12.900
the discounted load you paid and the higher load

00:22:12.900 --> 00:22:15.440
you actually qualified for. So it's flexible,

00:22:15.599 --> 00:22:18.259
but there are consequences. The action item is

00:22:18.259 --> 00:22:21.400
clear. Do not buy Class A shares without asking

00:22:21.400 --> 00:22:24.420
about ROA and signing an LOI if you plan to invest

00:22:24.420 --> 00:22:26.960
more over the next year. That is precisely right.

00:22:27.079 --> 00:22:29.619
Use the volume discount you've earned or promised

00:22:29.619 --> 00:22:31.900
to earn. Okay, now that we have all the components,

00:22:32.079 --> 00:22:34.539
let's synthesize this into a deeper dive on the

00:22:34.539 --> 00:22:37.000
share class structure itself. This comparison

00:22:37.000 --> 00:22:39.240
is essential. You have to understand which class

00:22:39.240 --> 00:22:41.940
serves which timeline best. Let's start again

00:22:41.940 --> 00:22:44.740
with Class A shares. Class A imposes the front

00:22:44.740 --> 00:22:47.319
-end load. Their structure is designed for long

00:22:47.319 --> 00:22:50.000
-term investors, or those making large one -time

00:22:50.000 --> 00:22:52.460
investments. They have the lowest annual expenses

00:22:52.460 --> 00:22:55.680
and the lowest 12B1 fee, meaning the compounding

00:22:55.680 --> 00:22:58.940
drag of fees is minimized over decades. and their

00:22:58.940 --> 00:23:01.960
load is reduced via breakpoints. Next, Class

00:23:01.960 --> 00:23:05.779
B shares. Class B operates under the CDSC, or

00:23:05.779 --> 00:23:08.640
back -end load, structure. Zero upfront commission.

00:23:08.960 --> 00:23:12.019
They impose higher annual 12B1 fees than Class

00:23:12.019 --> 00:23:14.359
A to cover the advance commission paid to the

00:23:14.359 --> 00:23:16.980
broker. The key feature here is the conversion

00:23:16.980 --> 00:23:19.500
Class B shares might automatically convert to

00:23:19.500 --> 00:23:22.059
Class A shares after the CDSC period expires,

00:23:22.140 --> 00:23:24.599
typically 7 to 10 years. Wait, why would they

00:23:24.599 --> 00:23:26.779
convert? Because once that commission period

00:23:26.779 --> 00:23:29.160
is over, There's no real reason to charge the

00:23:29.160 --> 00:23:32.099
high 12B1 fee anymore. By converting to Class

00:23:32.099 --> 00:23:34.900
A, the investor trades that expensive B structure

00:23:34.900 --> 00:23:37.500
for the significantly lower annual cost structure

00:23:37.500 --> 00:23:40.319
of the Class A shareholder. It optimizes the

00:23:40.319 --> 00:23:42.000
cost for the rest of their investment horizon.

00:23:42.339 --> 00:23:44.700
So Class B is essentially a high -cost transition

00:23:44.700 --> 00:23:47.079
strategy for investors who can't afford the upfront

00:23:47.079 --> 00:23:48.740
load but are certain they'll hold for at least

00:23:48.740 --> 00:23:51.289
seven years. Precisely. If you're unsure you'll

00:23:51.289 --> 00:23:54.470
hold it that long, the CDSE is punitive. If you

00:23:54.470 --> 00:23:56.769
hold it for life, it converts, and you eventually

00:23:56.769 --> 00:23:59.349
get the low annual cost. And finally, Class C

00:23:59.349 --> 00:24:02.390
shares, the no -load option. Class C shares generally

00:24:02.390 --> 00:24:05.690
have the highest perpetual annual expenses. They

00:24:05.690 --> 00:24:07.769
might have a small, short -term back -end charge,

00:24:07.930 --> 00:24:10.450
but their defining feature is that they do not

00:24:10.450 --> 00:24:12.910
convert to another class. They maintain that

00:24:12.910 --> 00:24:16.329
high 12B1 fee and high overall expense ratio

00:24:16.329 --> 00:24:19.029
indefinitely. Can you put a dollar value on that

00:24:19.029 --> 00:24:21.869
difference over 20 years? Imagine two investors,

00:24:21.970 --> 00:24:25.390
both with a $50 ,000 position. Investor A paid

00:24:25.390 --> 00:24:29.410
a 5 % front -end load, $2 ,500, but pays half

00:24:29.410 --> 00:24:33.250
a percent TE annually. Investor C paid zero up

00:24:33.250 --> 00:24:36.769
front, but pays 1 .5 % TE annually. After 20

00:24:36.769 --> 00:24:39.849
years, assuming an 8 % return, Investor C, because

00:24:39.849 --> 00:24:42.710
of that extra 1 % annual drag, will likely have

00:24:42.710 --> 00:24:45.509
forfeited an amount far, far exceeding that initial

00:24:45.509 --> 00:24:48.809
$2 ,500 load. Class C shares are rarely suitable

00:24:48.809 --> 00:24:50.970
for long -term investing. And as we move into

00:24:50.970 --> 00:24:53.589
the regulatory limits, what's the absolute cap

00:24:53.589 --> 00:24:56.869
on that 12B1 fee under U .S. rules? Under FINRA

00:24:56.869 --> 00:25:01.109
rules, the max annual 12B1 fee is 1%, and that's

00:25:01.109 --> 00:25:05.579
broken down. a maximum of 0 .75 % for distribution,

00:25:05.839 --> 00:25:08.440
which is marketing and sales, and a max of 0

00:25:08.440 --> 00:25:11.940
.25 % for shareholder servicing. No fund can

00:25:11.940 --> 00:25:14.019
charge you more than 1 % of your assets every

00:25:14.019 --> 00:25:16.359
year for that. Okay, now we get to the really

00:25:16.359 --> 00:25:18.819
sophisticated accounting. Let's talk about waivers,

00:25:18.839 --> 00:25:21.440
reimbursements, and recoupments. This is the

00:25:21.440 --> 00:25:24.079
fine print investors need to check, especially

00:25:24.079 --> 00:25:26.400
for newer funds. This addresses the financial

00:25:26.400 --> 00:25:29.440
reality of launching a new mutual fund. When

00:25:29.440 --> 00:25:32.210
a fund is small, Its fixed operating costs like

00:25:32.210 --> 00:25:35.750
rent or audit fees can look enormous as a percentage

00:25:35.750 --> 00:25:38.589
of total assets. To make the fund look competitive,

00:25:38.829 --> 00:25:41.329
the advisor might enter into a waiver or reimbursement

00:25:41.329 --> 00:25:43.490
agreement. So the advisor temporarily absorbs

00:25:43.490 --> 00:25:45.769
some of the costs to keep the reported expense

00:25:45.769 --> 00:25:48.630
ratio low. They eat the cost to attract assets.

00:25:48.930 --> 00:25:51.529
Precisely. They temporarily reduce expenses to

00:25:51.529 --> 00:25:54.430
a predetermined lower level. But here is the

00:25:54.430 --> 00:25:57.109
critical catch. The recoupment provision. The

00:25:57.109 --> 00:26:00.279
moment of repayment. Sometimes. These waived

00:26:00.279 --> 00:26:03.220
amounts must be repaid, or re -hooped, by the

00:26:03.220 --> 00:26:06.160
fund later on. This repayment period is often

00:26:06.160 --> 00:26:09.059
capped, generally not exceeding three years from

00:26:09.059 --> 00:26:11.380
when the original expense was incurred. This

00:26:11.380 --> 00:26:13.579
means the advisory firm gets to claw back the

00:26:13.579 --> 00:26:16.259
money it temporarily waived once the fund is

00:26:16.259 --> 00:26:18.099
big enough to absorb it. Let's walk through an

00:26:18.099 --> 00:26:21.059
example, a fictional fund over a few years. Year

00:26:21.059 --> 00:26:24.000
one. The fund is new, $10 million in assets.

00:26:24.539 --> 00:26:27.640
Actual costs are 1 .5%. The advisor weighed 0

00:26:27.640 --> 00:26:31.980
.6 % to meet a 0 .9 % cap. The advisor just incurred

00:26:31.980 --> 00:26:34.920
an obligation of $60 ,000 that the fund now owes

00:26:34.920 --> 00:26:38.339
back. Year two. The fund grows to $100 million.

00:26:38.759 --> 00:26:41.059
The actual expense ratio drops because of scale,

00:26:41.240 --> 00:26:43.339
but the advisor starts a recoupment process,

00:26:43.619 --> 00:26:45.440
maybe claiming an extra tenth of a percent that

00:26:45.440 --> 00:26:48.119
year. Year three. The fund keeps growing, but

00:26:48.119 --> 00:26:49.960
must continue to pay off that year one deficit.

00:26:50.359 --> 00:26:52.119
But hold on, here is the devastating implication.

00:26:52.519 --> 00:26:54.900
The fund is repaying costs incurred before I

00:26:54.900 --> 00:26:57.140
even bought my shares. That is the astonishing

00:26:57.140 --> 00:27:00.779
truth. If a recoupment plan is in effect, future

00:27:00.779 --> 00:27:03.940
shareholders who join in year three or four may

00:27:03.940 --> 00:27:06.539
be required to absorb expenses the fund incurred

00:27:06.539 --> 00:27:09.500
in prior years. You are paying to reimburse the

00:27:09.500 --> 00:27:11.579
advisor for marketing expenses they waived when

00:27:11.579 --> 00:27:14.220
the fund was tiny. and it's buried deep in the

00:27:14.220 --> 00:27:16.700
prospectus. That is a phenomenal piece of knowledge.

00:27:16.759 --> 00:27:19.259
You must check the prospectus for any ongoing

00:27:19.259 --> 00:27:22.380
recoupment obligations. Now let's move to a key

00:27:22.380 --> 00:27:25.059
mathematical insight, the predictiveness of expenses,

00:27:25.440 --> 00:27:28.579
fixed versus variable costs. This is fundamental.

00:27:28.859 --> 00:27:30.900
We're always warned that past performance is

00:27:30.900 --> 00:27:33.299
not predictive of future returns, but here is

00:27:33.299 --> 00:27:36.460
the inverse truth. Expenses are remarkably predictive.

00:27:37.069 --> 00:27:39.890
Funds with high expense ratios tend to continue

00:27:39.890 --> 00:27:42.150
having high expense ratios. Why is that certainty

00:27:42.150 --> 00:27:44.970
so high? Why can't a successful fund, once it

00:27:44.970 --> 00:27:47.730
hits $20 billion in assets, suddenly lower its

00:27:47.730 --> 00:27:49.569
costs because of efficiency? Because of how the

00:27:49.569 --> 00:27:52.029
costs are structured. While funds have some fixed

00:27:52.029 --> 00:27:54.470
costs, like an office lease or audit fees, the

00:27:54.470 --> 00:27:56.349
majority of their expenses, especially the largest

00:27:56.349 --> 00:27:58.990
ones, behave as variable costs in total dollars,

00:27:59.109 --> 00:28:01.190
but as fixed costs as a percentage of assets.

00:28:01.549 --> 00:28:04.029
That sounds contradictory. Walk me through the

00:28:04.029 --> 00:28:07.079
math. Let's focus on the management fee. If the

00:28:07.079 --> 00:28:10.440
advisory contract states a 0 .75 % management

00:28:10.440 --> 00:28:13.200
fee, that fee is fixed on a percentage basis.

00:28:13.660 --> 00:28:16.740
If the fund has $10 million in assets, the fee

00:28:16.740 --> 00:28:20.400
is $75 ,000. If the fund grows to a billion in

00:28:20.400 --> 00:28:23.720
assets, the fee automatically becomes $7 .5 million.

00:28:24.140 --> 00:28:28.819
The percentage consumed remains 0 .75 % regardless

00:28:28.819 --> 00:28:31.960
of how large the fund gets. I get it. A fixed

00:28:31.960 --> 00:28:35.140
cost like a $100 ,000 audit fee becomes a negligible

00:28:35.140 --> 00:28:37.599
percentage of a billion dollar fund. That efficiency

00:28:37.599 --> 00:28:40.140
is passed on. But the massive variable cost,

00:28:40.380 --> 00:28:43.480
the management fee, keeps taking the same percentage

00:28:43.480 --> 00:28:45.740
bite, completely neutralizing the gains from

00:28:45.740 --> 00:28:48.480
scale. Exactly. Since the management fee is locked

00:28:48.480 --> 00:28:50.839
in as a percentage and it's the dominant expense,

00:28:51.259 --> 00:28:54.019
it's extremely difficult for a fund to dramatically

00:28:54.019 --> 00:28:56.880
lower its expense ratio. If you buy a fund with

00:28:56.880 --> 00:28:59.940
a 1 .2 % expense ratio today, you should fully

00:28:59.940 --> 00:29:02.819
expect it to be 1 .2 % 10 years from now. That

00:29:02.819 --> 00:29:05.099
insight alone changes how you screen investments.

00:29:05.579 --> 00:29:08.460
The expense ratio is a permanent feature, not

00:29:08.460 --> 00:29:10.920
a temporary condition waiting to improve. Treat

00:29:10.920 --> 00:29:13.859
the TE -er as the most reliable unmoving number

00:29:13.859 --> 00:29:16.480
in the entire prospectus. Finally, let's tie

00:29:16.480 --> 00:29:18.220
this math back to your portfolio through the

00:29:18.220 --> 00:29:21.119
context of the asset class. Expenses matter relative

00:29:21.119 --> 00:29:23.839
to investment type. This is the essential so

00:29:23.839 --> 00:29:26.940
what of the entire deep dive. The acceptability

00:29:26.940 --> 00:29:29.839
of an expense ratio depends entirely on the historical

00:29:29.839 --> 00:29:32.779
return potential of the asset class. You have

00:29:32.779 --> 00:29:35.700
to gauge the cost as a percentage of your expected

00:29:35.700 --> 00:29:38.220
profit, not just as a percentage of your capital.

00:29:38.380 --> 00:29:41.180
We'll use three broad categories, equity, bond,

00:29:41.480 --> 00:29:43.859
and money market funds. Start with equity funds.

00:29:43.940 --> 00:29:45.980
Equity funds historically are the highest return

00:29:45.980 --> 00:29:48.819
category. Let's assume a long -term gross return

00:29:48.819 --> 00:29:52.349
of 10%. If that fund charges a 1 % expense ratio,

00:29:52.730 --> 00:29:55.269
the fee consumes approximately 10 % of your total

00:29:55.269 --> 00:29:58.869
gross return. While 1 % is still high, the massive

00:29:58.869 --> 00:30:01.569
growth engine softens the blow a bit. Now bond

00:30:01.569 --> 00:30:04.650
funds. Lower return potential, usually less volatile.

00:30:04.910 --> 00:30:07.910
If the historical gross return for a bond fund

00:30:07.910 --> 00:30:12.569
is, say, 8%, that same 1 % expense ratio now

00:30:12.569 --> 00:30:15.890
consumes about 12 .5 % of your return. You're

00:30:15.890 --> 00:30:18.849
forfeiting an extra 2 .5 % of your profit just

00:30:18.849 --> 00:30:20.890
by moving into a slightly lower returning asset

00:30:20.890 --> 00:30:23.230
class, even though the fee percentage is the

00:30:23.230 --> 00:30:25.829
same. The damage increases. And the most dramatic

00:30:25.829 --> 00:30:29.049
example, money market funds. They have the lowest

00:30:29.049 --> 00:30:32.240
historical returns, maybe 5 % over time. That

00:30:32.240 --> 00:30:35.339
1 % expense ratio in this context consumes a

00:30:35.339 --> 00:30:38.039
massive 20 % of your historical total return.

00:30:38.259 --> 00:30:40.500
One fifth of your profit just goes to operational

00:30:40.500 --> 00:30:43.420
fees. That changes everything. You have to be

00:30:43.420 --> 00:30:46.039
hyper aggressive about cost control here. You

00:30:46.039 --> 00:30:49.240
must. This just reinforces the need to evaluate

00:30:49.240 --> 00:30:52.619
the fee against the asset class. A 1 % fee is

00:30:52.619 --> 00:30:55.019
dramatically more destructive to a fixed income

00:30:55.019 --> 00:30:57.559
or money market investor than it is to an equity

00:30:57.559 --> 00:31:00.339
investor. The lower the expected return, the

00:31:00.339 --> 00:31:03.019
more imperative it is to pursue the absolute

00:31:03.019 --> 00:31:05.559
lowest expense ratios you could find. This deep

00:31:05.559 --> 00:31:08.140
dive has fully illuminated the dark corners of

00:31:08.140 --> 00:31:10.160
the prospectus. Let's bring it all back together

00:31:10.160 --> 00:31:12.720
for a final synthesis. We reviewed the three

00:31:12.720 --> 00:31:15.220
main buckets of charges. We started with the

00:31:15.220 --> 00:31:18.180
immediate direct payments, transaction fees,

00:31:18.420 --> 00:31:21.480
purchase, redemption, exchange, which goes straight

00:31:21.480 --> 00:31:23.220
to the fund. Then we looked at the recurring

00:31:23.220 --> 00:31:26.299
draw from the fund's assets, the periodic fees.

00:31:26.829 --> 00:31:29.329
That includes the massive management fees, those

00:31:29.329 --> 00:31:32.170
punitive account fees for small investors, and

00:31:32.170 --> 00:31:35.930
the crucial 12B1 fees, which facilitate that

00:31:35.930 --> 00:31:38.829
no -load marketing claim. And we highlighted

00:31:38.829 --> 00:31:41.589
that critical hidden expense transaction costs

00:31:41.589 --> 00:31:44.289
from high portfolio turnover, which aren't in

00:31:44.289 --> 00:31:47.099
the reported TER. And finally, we covered the

00:31:47.099 --> 00:31:49.640
loads front, back, and level. These are the commissions

00:31:49.640 --> 00:31:52.279
paid to the broker directly tied to the share

00:31:52.279 --> 00:31:55.200
class structure of A, B, and C. We saw how the

00:31:55.200 --> 00:31:57.799
true cost is the total expense ratio plus hidden

00:31:57.799 --> 00:32:00.180
transaction costs plus any upfront commission.

00:32:00.420 --> 00:32:02.500
So you now have the tools to understand the why

00:32:02.500 --> 00:32:04.920
and the how of every mutual fund charge. This

00:32:04.920 --> 00:32:07.000
empowers you to move from just passively receiving

00:32:07.000 --> 00:32:09.400
information to actively making a decision. What's

00:32:09.400 --> 00:32:11.799
the final actionable set of takeaways from all

00:32:11.799 --> 00:32:14.299
this complexity? Your power lies in focusing

00:32:14.299 --> 00:32:17.039
on minimization. You have to ruthlessly focus

00:32:17.039 --> 00:32:19.599
on minimizing annual expenses, especially in

00:32:19.599 --> 00:32:22.359
low -return environments like bond funds. If

00:32:22.359 --> 00:32:24.200
you're considering Class A shares for a large

00:32:24.200 --> 00:32:26.460
investment, you must investigate breakpoints

00:32:26.460 --> 00:32:28.619
and use rights of accumulation and letters of

00:32:28.619 --> 00:32:31.579
intent to get the maximum discount. And critically,

00:32:31.859 --> 00:32:34.940
be very wary of the high persistent annual costs

00:32:34.940 --> 00:32:38.279
of Class C no -load shares. The zero upfront

00:32:38.279 --> 00:32:41.180
commission is a psychological comfort, but the

00:32:41.180 --> 00:32:44.140
long -term drag will cost you far more over a

00:32:44.140 --> 00:32:46.319
multi -decade. investing horizon. Brilliant.

00:32:46.559 --> 00:32:48.480
And let's leave you with one final provocative

00:32:48.480 --> 00:32:50.019
thought that builds on what we learned today

00:32:50.019 --> 00:32:52.549
about the mathematics of cost. We established

00:32:52.549 --> 00:32:55.190
that a fund's high expense ratio is highly predictable

00:32:55.190 --> 00:32:57.289
because the majority of those costs, the management

00:32:57.289 --> 00:33:00.089
fee, are locked in as a constant percentage of

00:33:00.089 --> 00:33:02.470
assets. If a successful fund grows from $100

00:33:02.470 --> 00:33:05.430
million to $10 billion and its advisor's revenue

00:33:05.430 --> 00:33:08.230
increases 100 -fold without them having to dramatically

00:33:08.230 --> 00:33:11.089
lower the percentage they charge you, what truly

00:33:11.089 --> 00:33:13.609
forces a fund advisor to aggressively lower the

00:33:13.609 --> 00:33:16.109
expense ratio once it has established its history

00:33:16.109 --> 00:33:19.309
and the asset base is large? That decision to

00:33:19.309 --> 00:33:21.970
reduce the percentage fee. is almost entirely

00:33:21.970 --> 00:33:25.710
driven by competition, not by any intrinsic operational

00:33:25.710 --> 00:33:27.849
efficiency that they're mandated to share with

00:33:27.849 --> 00:33:31.009
you. The incentive to save you money often comes

00:33:31.009 --> 00:33:33.289
from outside the fund, not from within. Think

00:33:33.289 --> 00:33:35.569
about that next time you see a massive fund with

00:33:35.569 --> 00:33:37.910
a high expense ratio. That's all for this deep

00:33:37.910 --> 00:33:39.309
dive. We'll see you next time.
